A shop owner told me that my violin isn't worth much because it's American made. The fact that the maker was already making instruments in Germany before he emigrated to the U.S. at the beginning of the twentieth century doesn't matter. So, here are two questions.
1) If a violin maker packs up their tools, varnish, and some wood, rents a room in
Italy and builds a violin, can they then sell it at five times their going rate because now it is "made in Italy"?
2) If it was discovered that Antonio Stradivari took a working holiday for six months in Germany, would the violin he made now be worth only a fraction of it's previous value because now it's "made in Germany"?
By the way. The dealer then proudly showed me an instrument that he had made,(a very fine instrument), and seemed a little put off when I said that it was too bad that it's only American made. (I only meant it as a joke).
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