I have come across a violin which according to the appraisal it comes with was made in Germany "ca. 1940" but it was actually made in Bohemia which is the Latin name for Czech lands. The Czech part of what was Czechoslovakia was occupied by Germany during WWII then this violin was made, but does that justify to say that the country of origin is Germany? If that is justification enough, how many Italian instruments would have to be relabeled French and how many French ones would have to be relabeled German as the territory in which they were made changed hands between warring powers in Europe? Are there any set rules for appraisers? Or do they simply go by their own view of history? BTW, the appraiser in this case is a German.
Some will say I should judge the instrument by its tone and playability not the country of origin on the appraisal certificate and in principle I agree. However, I am looking for an interim instrument to bridge the time it takes to finish a custom instrument. For this reason I am concerned about resale value. I happen to live in Japan and would resell this instrument in a year or two over here. The Japanese are generally well educated when it comes to geography and credibility is everything. If they question the judgement that Bohemia was part of Germany even during WWII, then this will destroy the credibility of the appraisal, the appraiser and the seller, alike. The violin would then be unsellable because the buyer (me) is tainted with a lack of credibility.
Thus, I'd like to know from those members here who do appraisals, how they go about certifying the country of origin in such a case. Thanks in advance.
Violinist.com is made possible by...